Let \( g : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \) be defined as\( g(3n+1) = 3n + 2, \)\( g(3n+2) = 3n + 3, \)\( g(3n+3) = 3n + 1, \\ \text{for all } n \ge 0. \)Then which of the following statements is true?
There exists an onto function \( f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \) such that \( f \circ g = f \)
There exists a one-one function \( f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \) such that \( f \circ g = f \)
\( g \circ g \circ g = g \)
There exists a function \( f : \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N} \) such that \( g \circ f = f \)